Fr dear Fr: What is the purpose of the 1776 Declaration of Independence and the 1787 Bill of Rights in the good old golden Usa if people are apparently unfree to go about their daily business when visiting the Usa?

It is something of a commonality for people airily to expatiate upon the American Revolution of 1776 and to cite the sources of that Revolution in the French Revolution, forgetting that in terms of historical judicial precedent, it was the American Revolution that preceded the French Revolution and not the other way round. The American Revolution against its British betters took place in 1776, and the French Revolution against its lovely nobles took place in 1789 - some time elapsing between these two tragic events - much unnecessary blood split in the process too - all could have been resolved around a nice Napoleonic mahogany negotiating table like the creation of my own philosophy faculty in Oxford out of the strife of Londinium or Trinovantium if we are going to be fussy. At present, at the time of writing, America is divided into woke or ultra-liberal philosophy vs conservative and neocon philosophy and never the twain shall meet. Bit it ill behoves us in the traditional European mainland to forget that America was conceived in “past times” and has an inherent philosophy of assertion of its own:

Purpose - Revolution around subjective rights;

Method - Violent assertion - so here the Epiphany rioters look in;

Goal - Warlike spirits of Denmark or the Land of the Free.

So in a world of the Woke One World Government or OWG under Nancy and Dr Joe it seems that those older absolute assertions of Absolute Subjective Rights of once upon a time have now gone by the board, evidently or maybe just apparently, as America grapples with the logical if disturbing outcome of Absolutism in Subjective Rights Ideology on those once happy hills. The rest is history. Sober times.